Group: sci.physics.particle
From: "Y.Porat"
Date: Monday, March 10, 2008 10:09 AM
Subject: Re: Why does light bend under gravity?

On Mar 7, 7:07=A0am, The Ghost In The Machine
wrote:
> In sci.physics.relativity, va...@cox.net
>
> =A0wrote
> on Thu, 6 Mar 2008 16:53:22 -0800 (PST)
> <57700d87-ac88-4cae-8e42-08b0be809...@i29g2000prf.googlegroups.com>:
>
>
>
>
>
> > On Mar 6, 9:19=A0am, "Androcles" wrote:
> >> "PD" wrote in message
>
> >>news:d25d5e8d-69e8-4208-bf8e-0fd1a797767e@n58g2000hsf.googlegroups.com..=
.
> >> On Mar 6, 9:38 am, The Ghost In The Machine
>
> >> wrote:
> >> > In sci.physics.relativity, Eric Gisse
> >> >
> >> > wrote
> >> > on Thu, 6 Mar 2008 06:50:41 -0800 (PST)
> >> > <2b831503-d191-4816-9c13-99a0eed97...@s8g2000prg.googlegroups.com>:
>
> >> > > On Mar 5, 9:55 pm, Koobee Wublee wrote:
> >> > >> On Mar 4, 6:03 pm, carlip-nos...@physics.ucdavis.edu wrote:
>
> >> > >> > I suggest that you try for a graceful retreat.
>
> >> > >> Well, I found a mistake in the boundary condition. As you have
> >> > >> suggested, I will execute a graceful retreat this time. In doing s=
o,
> >> > >> my instinct might still be correct about any high-speed particle
> >> > >> having a discontinuity as its speed goes to the speed of light.
>
> >> > > My god your arrogance is astounding. DO THE COMPUTATION.
>
> >> > What math would you have him do? ;-) There is indeed a
> >> > discontinuity in the SR energy equation
>
> >> > E =3D m c^2 / sqrt(1-v^2/c^2)
>
> >> > Going through infinity to become imaginary energy sounds like
> >> > a pretty big discontinuity to me....
>
> >> | There's no going *through* infinity. There is an *approach* to
> >> | infinity. A function that has an infinite asymptote is not
> >> | discontinuous.
>
> >> y =3D tan(x) for x =3D 0 to pi has no discontinuity at pi/2?
> >> Why yes, yes it does.
>
> > =A0Graph it nitwit.
>
> > tan pi =3D .054886...
> > tan pi/2 =3D .027422...
> > tan pi/100 =3D .0005483...
> > tan pi/1000 =3D .00005483...
>
> The mathematical convention is to use radians, not degrees,
> as Androcles has already pointed out. =A0Pi/2 =3D 90 degrees.
> Pi =3D 180 degrees.
>
> Most calculators more sophisticated than a "four-banger"
> have a radian mode. =A0Also, one can approximate tan pi to
> arbitrary precision by using the formulae:
>
> sin(x) =3D x - x^3/3! + x^5/5! - x^7/7! ...
> cos(x) =3D 1 - x^2/2! + x^4/4! - x^6/6! ...
>
> (where n! =3D n.(n-1).(n-2)...(3).(2).(1))
>
> and then dividing tan(x) =3D sin(x)/cos(x).
>
> In these formulae x is expressed in radians.
>
> The function tan(x) has a singularity at pi/2 + n*pi for any integer n.
>
>
>
> >> Fucking idiot!
> >> HAHAHAHAHAHA!- Hide quoted text -
>
> >> - Show quoted text -
>
> --
> #191, ewi...@earthlink.net
> fortune: not found
>
> --
> Posted via a free Usenet account fromhttp://www.teranews.com- Hide quoted =
text -
>
> - Show quoted text -

----------------
in order to turn degrees to Radians
you have to
divide the degrees by 180 and multiply by Pi

x degrees =3D x times Pi /180 (radians )
(and vice versa )
(secondary school .....)

ATB
Y.Porat
-------------------------------

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