Gordon Sollars wrote:
> In article
>
>> I immediately noted the word "preemption" is not used once,....so
>> obviously no distinction was made using that specific term (at least
>> not in the example you provided me). I would also point out a hundred
>> and fifty year old example isn't exactly strong evidence to support
>> that there is strong legal distinction between the two concepts (and
>> wouldn't have Bush leveraged it if there was?)
>
> Sorry, but you are quite wrong.
And my learned friend is quite right, but in my experience Potroast has
never been one to let the facts cloud his judgment.
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